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The third micro mock test to prepare for the 1Z0-200 exam focussed on the topics: Multi-org and Flexfields. Please find below the solution key for the practice test. The correct answers are marked in bold and in italics for easy reading.
As one must have noticed, the questions are sometimes worded for you to select the "statements that are not correct" or "statements that are not true". Please read the questions carefully because if one misses the 'not' word, the answers that one might conclude may not be the correct ones!
#1: Examples of organizations in Oracle EBS include which of the following?
[a] Legal Entity
[b] Network
[c] Operating Unit
[d] Responsibility
[e] Set of Books
#2: Which of the following represents a company for which fiscal or tax reports are prepared?
[a] Business Group
[b] Legal Entity
[c] Operating Unit
[e] Set of Books
#3: Which of the following statements are true regarding Descriptive Flexfields?
[a] One can easily add up to 5 new Descriptive Flexfields to any form in Oracle EBS that presently does not have any defined
[b] Different Descriptive Flexfields can share the same value set
[c] Descriptive Flexfields appear as a normal field on a form
[d] Descriptive flexfields can use global segments or context-sensitive segments but not both
#4:When can two organizations share a set of books?
[a] Chart of Accounts and calendar must be the same, but currency can be different
[b] Calendar and currency must be the same, but chart of accounts can be different
[c] Calendar, currency and chart of accounts must be the same
[d] Chart of accounts and currency must be the same, but calendar can be different
#5: Which of the following are valid Value Set types that can be defined?
[a] None
[b] Interdependent
[c] Independent
[d] Table
[e] Exclusive
#6: Which of the following setups have to be configured after you have created a new operating unit?
[a] Supplier sites
[b] Customer addresses
[c] Employee addresses
[d] Payment terms
#7: Which of the following statements are true regarding multi-org structure?
[a] Multiple inventory organizations may be associated with a single operating unit
[b] Primary purpose of multi-org is to give multiple organizations access to the same transaction data [c] Multiple sets of books may be associated with a single legal entity
[d] Multiple operating units may be associated with a single legal entity
#8: Which of the following are Key Flexfields?
[a] Asset Category Flexfield
[b] Territory Flexfield
[c] Service Item Flexfield
[d] Sales Order Flexfield
#9: Which of the following represents a financial reporting entity that shares a common currency, calendar and chart of accounts?
[a] Legal Entity
[b] Operating Unit
[c] Business Group
[d] Set of Books
[e] Inventory Org
#10: For which of the Oracle EBS modules is data secured by Operating Unit?
[a] Cash Management
[b] General Ledger
[c] Property Manager
[d] Fixed Assets
#11: Which of the statements are incorrect about Key Flexfields?
[a] If dynamic insertion is turned off, a comination form must be used to create new code combinations for the key flexfield
[b] Key flexfields are not mandatory
[c] Item category flexfield is a key flexfield
[d] Flexfields: Open Key Window profile option can be set to open flexfield automatically if the cursor navigates to the field
#12: Which statements are true regarding flexfield value sets?
[a] Different segments of the same flexfield can use the same value set
[b] Must create a separate value set for each segment of each flexfield
[c] Value sets must include the actual values to be used with them
[d] Value sets define the values approved for a particular flexfield segment
#13:Identify the true statements about key flexfields
[a] Setup is optional
[b] Usually consists of multiple segments
[c] Captures additional information only
[d] Appears as a normal field on a form
#14: You have been asked to outline the complete list of tasks to be performed to add a new operating unit (OU) to your organization's existing enterprise structure that is in use for the last 2 years. Which option is the correct sequence of steps?
[a] Define an OU, run ADADMIN to convert to multi-org, run Replicate Seed Data program, create responsibility, assign MO: Operating Unit profile to the responsibility, assign responsibility to user
[b] Run ADADMIN to convert to multi-org, Define an OU, create responsibility, assign MO: Operating Unit profile to the responsibility, assign responsibility to user
[c] Define an OU, run Replicate Seed Data program, create responsibility, assign MO: Operating Unit profile to the responsibility, assign responsibility to user
[d] Not possible to add a new OU to an existing enterprise structure
#15: Which of the following are business needs addressed by the multi-org architecture?
[a] Secure access of data by line of business
[b] Implement different organizational models
[c] Sell and ship from different legal entities
[d] Support multiple business units sharing same Set of Books
#16: You are entering values for a Key Flexfield and get a warning note pop-up window directing you to enter a valid combination. Why did this happen?
[a] The Key Flexfield is not setup
[b] The Key Flexfield is not forzen
[c] The Key Flexfield has Dynamic Insert option unchecked
[d] The Key Flexfield has cross-validation option checked
#17: What are the segment qualifiers available for Accounting Flexfield?
[a] Account Type
[b] Allow Posting
[c] Parent - Yes or No
[d] Allow Budgeting
[e] Allow Reporting
#18: You have defined a Cost Center value set value of 200 and saved the record. Some months later, it is decided to discontinue Cost Center 200 and enter a new cost center 300. What options are available to you?
[a] Delete the value 200 and enter a new value 300
[b] Disable the value 200 and enter a new value 300
[c] Overwrite the value 200 with new value 300
[d] Limit the effective date of 200 to a date in the past and enter a new value 300
#19: Company ABC has 3 Sets of Books - SOB A, SOB B and SOB C. Each Set of Books has 2 Legal Entities - A1 & A2, B1& B2, C1 & C2 Legal Entity A1 has 2 Operating Units - A1OU1 and A1OU2, Legal Entity A2, B1, B2, C1 and C2 has one operating units each A2OU1, B1OU1, C1OU1 and C2OU1. To create this organization structure, how many Oracle instances are required?
[a] 3 : equal to the number of Set of Books
[b] 6 : equal to the number of Legal Entity
[c] 1 : equal to the number of database
[d] 7 : equal to the number of Operating Units
#20: Ability to create new code combinations on the fly is an example of which of the following?
[a] Aliases
[b] Security Rules
[c] Cross-validation Rules
[d] Dynamic Insertion
September 30, 2007
September 24, 2007
Tips for 1Z0-232: Oracle Certified Expert (OCE) - Sys Admin Exam
From the desk of Bas Klaassen, OCE:
At the end of 2006, I found out that Oracle finally decided to start a certification program for 11i OCP E-Business Suite DBA.
Being an EBS DBA for over seven years now, I always wondered why Oracle did not have a certification program for the E-Business Suite DBA track earlier even though the OCP DBA certification has existed for years.
I also noticed that there were three beta exams and decided to take two of them to start with. Please note that Oracle launched Oracle Certified Expert track in April 2007 and the System Administration exam now provides OCE credentials instead of 11i EBS DBA OCP certification as announced during the beta phase.
One of the beta exams was Oracle 11i System Administration: 1Z0-232. The beta period was expiring soon and I did not have enough time to prepare for the exam except for relying on my professional day-to-day DBA and system administration expertise and experience.
The exam is based on Release 11.5.10. So if one is already working on Release 12 or earlier releases like Release 11.0.3, one needs to be careful about the concepts since it may not apply to the release one is working on.
As part of my rushed preparation, the concentration was on topics that needed some review of the concepts on my part. They were as follows:
- Oracle user management
- Creating EBS users, Responsibilities, Data groups and relationship among them
- Oracle Application Manager
- Managing concurrent managers.
- The life cycle of a concurrent request
- Scheduling concurrent requests
- Creating request sets
- Forms Personalization
Preparing for the Sys Admin OCE exam can be done by reading the available sysadmin guides. Look up the following guides from the 11i.10 documentation CD or on the 11i Documentation Portal:
115samg.pdf 115sasg.pdf 115sacg.pdf. These guides can be downloaded and cover all the important topics mentioned above.
For seasoned practioners, if one is able to combine the topics in the user guides with the 11i Sys Admin experience, then the exam experience will indeed be a fruitful one. It turned out to be a satisfying experience for me as I got the certificate in my mail box a few months later after the beta testing phase was over.
Good luck!
At the end of 2006, I found out that Oracle finally decided to start a certification program for 11i OCP E-Business Suite DBA.
Being an EBS DBA for over seven years now, I always wondered why Oracle did not have a certification program for the E-Business Suite DBA track earlier even though the OCP DBA certification has existed for years.
I also noticed that there were three beta exams and decided to take two of them to start with. Please note that Oracle launched Oracle Certified Expert track in April 2007 and the System Administration exam now provides OCE credentials instead of 11i EBS DBA OCP certification as announced during the beta phase.
One of the beta exams was Oracle 11i System Administration: 1Z0-232. The beta period was expiring soon and I did not have enough time to prepare for the exam except for relying on my professional day-to-day DBA and system administration expertise and experience.
The exam is based on Release 11.5.10. So if one is already working on Release 12 or earlier releases like Release 11.0.3, one needs to be careful about the concepts since it may not apply to the release one is working on.
As part of my rushed preparation, the concentration was on topics that needed some review of the concepts on my part. They were as follows:
- Oracle user management
- Creating EBS users, Responsibilities, Data groups and relationship among them
- Oracle Application Manager
- Managing concurrent managers.
- The life cycle of a concurrent request
- Scheduling concurrent requests
- Creating request sets
- Forms Personalization
Preparing for the Sys Admin OCE exam can be done by reading the available sysadmin guides. Look up the following guides from the 11i.10 documentation CD or on the 11i Documentation Portal:
115samg.pdf 115sasg.pdf 115sacg.pdf. These guides can be downloaded and cover all the important topics mentioned above.
For seasoned practioners, if one is able to combine the topics in the user guides with the 11i Sys Admin experience, then the exam experience will indeed be a fruitful one. It turned out to be a satisfying experience for me as I got the certificate in my mail box a few months later after the beta testing phase was over.
Good luck!
September 21, 2007
Solution Key For 1Z0-200 Micro Mock Test - II
The second micro mock test to prepare for the 1Z0-200 exam focussed on the topics of integration and shared entities. Please find below the solution key for the practice test.
The correct answers are marked in bold and in italics for easy reading.
#1: Which of the following are examples of Shared Entities?
[a] Set of Books (SOB)
[b] Units of Measure (UOM)
[c] Employees
[d] Sales Order
#2: Which of the following are owned by Application Object Library (AOL)?
[a] Customers
[b] Currencies
[c] Suppliers
[d] Set of Books (SOB)
[e] Languages
#3: What statements are true about Units of Measure (UOM)?
[a] UOM when grouped together form UOM Classes
[b] Every UOM Class require one Primary UOM
[c] UOM are inventory organization specific
[d] An example of UOM Conversion is 1 feet = 1 * 12 inches
#4: Which of the following are owned by CRM Foundation (JTA)?
[a] Resource Manager
[b] Concurrent Manager
[c] Interaction History
[d] Transaction Manager
#5: Which of the following have modules incorrectly matched with the corresponding Key Business Flow?
[a] Demand to Build: BOM, OM, WIP
[b] Forecast to Plan: AP, AR, GL
[c] Procure to Pay: AP, INV, PO
[d] Contract to Renewal: AR, OKS, OM
#6: Which of the following are Key Business Flows?
[a] Click to Order
[b] Project to Payroll
[c] Campaign to Order
[d] Order to Cash
[e] Request to Restitution
#7: Vendor ABC Corp supplies to XYZ Corp based on Purchase Orders sent by XYZ Corp. Which of the modules are impacted by this business flow?
[a] Purchasing Only
[b] Purchasing, Payables
[c] General Ledger, Order Management, Cash Management
[d] Purchasing, Payables, General Ledger, Cash Management
#8: The Trading Community Architecture involves primarily which one of the following?
[a] Users
[b] Items
[c] Customers
[d] Responsibilities
#9: Using which business flow can online customers be, store catalogs and store fronts created and application users generated?
[a] Demand to Build
[b] Campaign to Build
[c] Click to Order
[d] Contract to Renewal
Again, we had one of our readers getting 8 out of 9 correct answers and just missing out on the prize. Just to make the winning a bit easier, the blog editor would conduct a draw of lots of all respondents who scored more than 80% correct and choose a lucky winner!
The correct answers are marked in bold and in italics for easy reading.
#1: Which of the following are examples of Shared Entities?
[a] Set of Books (SOB)
[b] Units of Measure (UOM)
[c] Employees
[d] Sales Order
#2: Which of the following are owned by Application Object Library (AOL)?
[a] Customers
[b] Currencies
[c] Suppliers
[d] Set of Books (SOB)
[e] Languages
#3: What statements are true about Units of Measure (UOM)?
[a] UOM when grouped together form UOM Classes
[b] Every UOM Class require one Primary UOM
[c] UOM are inventory organization specific
[d] An example of UOM Conversion is 1 feet = 1 * 12 inches
#4: Which of the following are owned by CRM Foundation (JTA)?
[a] Resource Manager
[b] Concurrent Manager
[c] Interaction History
[d] Transaction Manager
#5: Which of the following have modules incorrectly matched with the corresponding Key Business Flow?
[a] Demand to Build: BOM, OM, WIP
[b] Forecast to Plan: AP, AR, GL
[c] Procure to Pay: AP, INV, PO
[d] Contract to Renewal: AR, OKS, OM
#6: Which of the following are Key Business Flows?
[a] Click to Order
[b] Project to Payroll
[c] Campaign to Order
[d] Order to Cash
[e] Request to Restitution
#7: Vendor ABC Corp supplies to XYZ Corp based on Purchase Orders sent by XYZ Corp. Which of the modules are impacted by this business flow?
[a] Purchasing Only
[b] Purchasing, Payables
[c] General Ledger, Order Management, Cash Management
[d] Purchasing, Payables, General Ledger, Cash Management
#8: The Trading Community Architecture involves primarily which one of the following?
[a] Users
[b] Items
[c] Customers
[d] Responsibilities
#9: Using which business flow can online customers be, store catalogs and store fronts created and application users generated?
[a] Demand to Build
[b] Campaign to Build
[c] Click to Order
[d] Contract to Renewal
Again, we had one of our readers getting 8 out of 9 correct answers and just missing out on the prize. Just to make the winning a bit easier, the blog editor would conduct a draw of lots of all respondents who scored more than 80% correct and choose a lucky winner!
September 20, 2007
Solution Key for 1Z0-200 Micro Mock Test-I
It was a great delight to find an unprecedented response for Micro Mock Test-I based on the 1Z0-200 E-Business Fundamentals exam.
Please find below the Solution Key for the practice test.
The correct answers are marked in bold and in italics for easy reading.
#1: The two main architectures on which E-Business Suite 11i is based are:
[a] Functional Architecture
[b] Technical Architecture
[c] Business Architecture
[d] Server Architecture
#2: Which of the following are among the 5 principles of 11i Business Architecture?
[a] Classical Foundation
[b] End-to-End Integration
[c] Global
[d] Rapid Implementation
#3: What are the 4 class of users on which the 11i technical architecture is based ?
[a] Forms-based user
[b] Power user
[c] Self-service user
[d] One-time user
[e] BI user
[f] Mobile user
#4: Select the correctly matched acronyms:
[a] PHP - Private Home Page
[b] JVM - Java Virtual Machine
[c] JSP - Java Server Pages
[d] UTF8 - Unicode Transformation Font 8-bit
#5: Which of the following are members of the 3-Tier Technical Architecture of 11i?
[a] Desktop Tier
[b] Laptop Tier
[c] Applications Tier
[d] Middleware Tier
[e] Database Tier
#6: What is the name of the JVM provided in E-Business Suite 11i versions?
[a] Oracle Active X
[b] Oracle JDeveloper
[c] Oracle JInitiator
[d] Sun Microsystems JDK 5.0 or higher
#7: What role does Oracle Application Server play in E-Business Suite 11i Technical Architecture?
[a] Executes business logic
[b] Controls communication between desktop client and database
[c] Stores business logic
[d] Stores business data
#8: Which among the following are implementation methodologies for E-Business Suite 11i?
[a] Application Implementation Methodology (AIM)
[b] Dynamic Enterprise Modeling (DEM)
[c] Oracle Unified Method (OUM)
[d] Project Managment Method (PJM)
#9: As part of National Language Support (NLS), how many languages does Release 11i support for customer-facing components of the applications?
[a] 8
[b] 17
[c] 32
[d] 53
Several readers had 8 out of 9 correct answers. None got all correct.
To encourage our readers, the blog editor is announcing a special prize for the first all-correct answer selected for every mock test!
Please find below the Solution Key for the practice test.
The correct answers are marked in bold and in italics for easy reading.
#1: The two main architectures on which E-Business Suite 11i is based are:
[a] Functional Architecture
[b] Technical Architecture
[c] Business Architecture
[d] Server Architecture
#2: Which of the following are among the 5 principles of 11i Business Architecture?
[a] Classical Foundation
[b] End-to-End Integration
[c] Global
[d] Rapid Implementation
#3: What are the 4 class of users on which the 11i technical architecture is based ?
[a] Forms-based user
[b] Power user
[c] Self-service user
[d] One-time user
[e] BI user
[f] Mobile user
#4: Select the correctly matched acronyms:
[a] PHP - Private Home Page
[b] JVM - Java Virtual Machine
[c] JSP - Java Server Pages
[d] UTF8 - Unicode Transformation Font 8-bit
#5: Which of the following are members of the 3-Tier Technical Architecture of 11i?
[a] Desktop Tier
[b] Laptop Tier
[c] Applications Tier
[d] Middleware Tier
[e] Database Tier
#6: What is the name of the JVM provided in E-Business Suite 11i versions?
[a] Oracle Active X
[b] Oracle JDeveloper
[c] Oracle JInitiator
[d] Sun Microsystems JDK 5.0 or higher
#7: What role does Oracle Application Server play in E-Business Suite 11i Technical Architecture?
[a] Executes business logic
[b] Controls communication between desktop client and database
[c] Stores business logic
[d] Stores business data
#8: Which among the following are implementation methodologies for E-Business Suite 11i?
[a] Application Implementation Methodology (AIM)
[b] Dynamic Enterprise Modeling (DEM)
[c] Oracle Unified Method (OUM)
[d] Project Managment Method (PJM)
#9: As part of National Language Support (NLS), how many languages does Release 11i support for customer-facing components of the applications?
[a] 8
[b] 17
[c] 32
[d] 53
Several readers had 8 out of 9 correct answers. None got all correct.
To encourage our readers, the blog editor is announcing a special prize for the first all-correct answer selected for every mock test!
September 19, 2007
Have you visited Ospace yet?
From your space you may have visited MySpace.
Have you visited Ospace yet?
One of the featured blogs on Ospace is the one you are reading now!
Have you visited Ospace yet?
One of the featured blogs on Ospace is the one you are reading now!
September 18, 2007
Introducing Guest Author
The Blog Editor (Your OCP Advisor) is thrilled to introduce the first of a select group of guest authors who have agreed to contribute to this blog. So here's your first guest author introducing himself in his own words:" My name is Bas Klaassen. I'm from Netherlands. I have been an Oracle EBS DBA for seven years now. I have worked with Oracle E-Business Suite Release 11 and 11i. Last year, Oracle introduced the 11i OCP DBA program. I decided to take one of the first beta exams last November. After passing the beta exams, I decided to become OCP 10g DBA and 1 month ago I also passed the 1Z0-042 exam. So, I only need to pass one more exam (and of course attend a course at Oracle University) to become an Oracle EBS 11i OCP DBA. Also, I received my Oracle Certified Expert (OCE) certification. As a quest author on this blog, I will share my OCP and OCE experience with you. Hopefully, by writing posts on this blog, it would stimulate others take the exams. In my spare time, I also write an Application DBA blog. Please visit my blog at http://basklaassen.blogspot.com".
On behalf of the OCP and OCE community, it is my priviledge to extend a very warm welcome to Bas. The Blog Editor is hopeful that our exclusive group of guest authors would provide great insights and tips for the exam prep and contribute to our readers and readership success!
September 15, 2007
Are you ready for the party?
This last installment of Micro Mock Test for 1Z0-200 E-Business Fundamentals exam features 26 questions on System Administration, Workflow, Alerts and Daily Business Intelligence. Please spend about half an hour answering these questions to simulate actual testing conditions. Micro Mock Tests 1-4 consists of a total of 64 questions (Test 1 - 9, Test 2 - 9, Test 3 - 20 and Test 4 - 26) which is the same number of questions asked in the actual exam with a 1.5 hour time limit.
One who is preparing for the Oracle Certified Expert (OCE) exams for System Administration and Workflow would find the same focus areas also featured in the E-Business Fundamentals exam with the questions not at an advanced level like the OCE exams. However, the OCE exam prep helps as the blog editor found out to his pleasant surprise.
A record number of blog readers have responded to the Micro Mock Test 1. One hopes that the other micro mock tests are equally popular and useful from the exam prep perspective. More than 40% of the survey respondents have indicated that they are taking an OCP exam this month. A large number of them may be appearing for the E-Business Fundamentals exam. After the exam, please provide your feedback regarding your test taking experience to the blog editor. The more we share, the better are the chances for our readers to become OCP and OCE certified. The answers to the micro mock tests would be published over the next few days to enable more readers to take the tests online. Once you evaluate your mock test performance, it would be clear if you are ready for the (OCP exam) party!
E-Business Fundamentals Micro Mock Test Summary:
Click Here For Test 4
Click Here For Test 3
Click Here For Test 2
Click Here For Test 1
Solution Key for Micro Mock Tests
Click Here For Test 4 Answers
Click Here For Test 3 Answers
Click Here For Test 2 Answers
Click Here For Test 1 Answers
Micro Mock Test#4
#1: To limit user access to certain forms or functions within a given responsibility, which actions can you perform?
[a] Customize the user definition
[b] Customize the responsibility
[c] Exclude functions from the user definition
[d] Exclude functions from the responsibility
#2: Which of the following statements are true regarding Profile Options?
[a] Responsibility level profile options override application level profile options
[b] Profile options set at the application level will apply to all users of all of the Oracle applications
[c] Profile options set at the site level will apply to all users with the installation of Oracle
[d] All of the above
#3:A request group associated with a responsibility gives the user access to which one of the following?
[a] Menus
[b] Functions
[c] Reports
[d] Table Data
#4: Every DBI dashboard has a set of parameters that determine the data being displayed. Which among the following are DBI parameters?
[a] Date Parameter
[b] Compare To Parameter
[c] Primary Dimension Parameter
[d] Secondary Dimension Parameter
[e] Currency Parameter
[f] Set of Books Parameter
#5: Which component of workflow lets you design a complete workflow process?
[a] Workflow Builder
[b] Workflow Definitions Loader
[c] Workflow Engine
[d] Workflow Monitor
#6: Function Security is:
[a] Lowest or base level of Access Control
[b] Part of Role Base Access Control (RBAC) model
[c] Usually administered by end users
[d] Restricts user access to individual menus and menu options
#7: Profile Options can only be set at which levels?
[a] Site, Application and Responsibility
[b] Site, Application, Responsibility and User
[c] Site, Application and User
[d] Site and Application
#8: Which of the following statements are true regarding Workflow Processes?
[a] Workflow process definition is composed of activities and transitions between them
[b] Workflow engine locates the 'Run' activity which is the first activity in the process defintion to start it
[c] Workflow process completes when the workflow engine encounters an 'End' activity
[d] Workflow process definition must never be stored in the same database as the Workflow Engine
#9: Profile Options can be used to default information into which of the following?
[a] Concurrent Program Parameters Only
[b] Descriptive Flexfield Segments Only
[c] Key Flexfield Segments Only
[d] Both Concurrent Program Parametrs and Descriptive Flexfield Segments
#10: You have been asked to setup a default Check printer for the Accounts Payable Clerk. At what level would you setup the profile option for the default printer?
[a] Application Level
[b] Responsibility Level
[c] Site Level
[d] User Level
#11:Controlling access to individual functions through menu definitions is an example of which of the following?
[a] Blank Menus
[b] Function Security
[c] Securing Attributes
[d] Sub-Functions
#12: Which among the following are regions on the DBI dashboard?
[a] Parameter
[b] Table
[c] Graph
[d] Responsibility
[e] KPI
[f] Folder
#13: Workflow logic supports sophisticated rules to model your business logic. Which of the process constructs are supported?
[a] Looping
[b] Non-parallel flows
[c] Rendezvous
[d] Voting
[e] Results-based branching
#14: A responsibility is a collection of authorizations that allow access to which of the following?
[a] One or more application modules
[b] One or more Sets of Books
[c] Restricted list of reports
[d] Restricted list of menus and functions
#15: Which of the following statements are true regarding Alerts?
[a] Alerts must identify exceptions in order to perform actions
[b] Showing all employess that have terminated in the last 4 months is an example of Period Alert
[c] Period Alerts notify users of activity in the database as soon as it occurs
[d] A sales manager who wishes to inform his customer when an order has been shipped would use an Event Alert
[e] Sending an e-mail message is one possible action as a result of an alert
#16: As a system administrator, you have changed a profile option value at the site level and saved the record. At what point is the profile option change affected in the system for a business user?
[a] When the System Administrator saves the record
[b] When the Business User logs off and logs in back again
[c] When the Business User changes responsibility
[d] When the System Administrator logs off and logs in back again
#17: Daily Business Intelligence dashboards are available for which of the following?
[a] System Administration
[b] Service Contracts
[c] Projects
[d] All of the above
[e] None of the above
#18: What is the purpose of the Workflow Monitor?
[a] View status of worklfow process instances
[b] Monitor workflows
[c] Administrator can control workflows in Workflow Monitor
[d] Shows summary of all individual workflows
#19: Which of the following statements are incorrect about Responsibilities?
[a] One user can be assigned to multiple responsibilities for the same Oracle application module
[b] A maximum of 999 users can be assigned to one responsibility
[c] Securing attributes are used by Self-Service Web application responsbilities
[d] A request group lists the concurrent programs that a responsibility can run
#20:Workflow Notification Mailer uses which of the following protocols?
[a] Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) for inbound messages
[b] Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) for outbound messages
[c] Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) for inbound messages
[d] Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) for outbound messages
#21: Which of the following are true statements regarding DBI parameters?
[a] Every time you change the value of a parameter on a dashboard, the data on the dashboard is automatically refreshed
[b] When you log out of Oracle Applications, your last parameter settings (except data parameter) are cached so that it remains the same when you log in
[c] There can be multiple primary dimensions for each dashboard
[d] The primary dimension is the parameter that determines the values that are compared in the KPI region
#22: Business Event System is part of which tier of the Workflow Architecture?
[a] Application Server
[b] Oracle Server
[c] End-user Client
[d] Workflow Development Client
#23: Which of the following statements are true regarding DBI dashboards?
[a] DBI administrator needs to run incremental request set for each dashboard to refresh the data
[b] One can email a .GIF file of a dashboard or report to another user by clicking the Email link
[c] One can export a report to a Microsoft Excel spreadsheet including graphs and links by clicking the Export link
[d] Number of rows of data that are exported to Microsoft Excel is determined by the FND: View Object Max Fetch Size profile option
#24: Which of the following would you use to transfer a workflow process definition between the database and flat file ?
[a] Workflow Monitor
[b] Workflow Builder
[c] Workflow Definitions Loader
[d] Workflow XML Loader
#25: For which of the following business scenarios would you define Descriptive Flexfields?
[a] Storing vehicle information associated with the asset category "Vehicle"
[b] Location information associated with the "Vehicle" assets
[c] Customer service rep name associated with the sale order
[d] Weblink to property map in Oracle Property Manager
#26: If a menu is renamed under a different name, then what happens in the system?
[a] The original menu is disabled
[b] The new menu overwrites the original menu
[c] A new menu is created and the original menu is also enabled
[d] None of the above
One who is preparing for the Oracle Certified Expert (OCE) exams for System Administration and Workflow would find the same focus areas also featured in the E-Business Fundamentals exam with the questions not at an advanced level like the OCE exams. However, the OCE exam prep helps as the blog editor found out to his pleasant surprise.
A record number of blog readers have responded to the Micro Mock Test 1. One hopes that the other micro mock tests are equally popular and useful from the exam prep perspective. More than 40% of the survey respondents have indicated that they are taking an OCP exam this month. A large number of them may be appearing for the E-Business Fundamentals exam. After the exam, please provide your feedback regarding your test taking experience to the blog editor. The more we share, the better are the chances for our readers to become OCP and OCE certified. The answers to the micro mock tests would be published over the next few days to enable more readers to take the tests online. Once you evaluate your mock test performance, it would be clear if you are ready for the (OCP exam) party!
E-Business Fundamentals Micro Mock Test Summary:
Click Here For Test 4
Click Here For Test 3
Click Here For Test 2
Click Here For Test 1
Solution Key for Micro Mock Tests
Click Here For Test 4 Answers
Click Here For Test 3 Answers
Click Here For Test 2 Answers
Click Here For Test 1 Answers
Micro Mock Test#4
#1: To limit user access to certain forms or functions within a given responsibility, which actions can you perform?
[a] Customize the user definition
[b] Customize the responsibility
[c] Exclude functions from the user definition
[d] Exclude functions from the responsibility
#2: Which of the following statements are true regarding Profile Options?
[a] Responsibility level profile options override application level profile options
[b] Profile options set at the application level will apply to all users of all of the Oracle applications
[c] Profile options set at the site level will apply to all users with the installation of Oracle
[d] All of the above
#3:A request group associated with a responsibility gives the user access to which one of the following?
[a] Menus
[b] Functions
[c] Reports
[d] Table Data
#4: Every DBI dashboard has a set of parameters that determine the data being displayed. Which among the following are DBI parameters?
[a] Date Parameter
[b] Compare To Parameter
[c] Primary Dimension Parameter
[d] Secondary Dimension Parameter
[e] Currency Parameter
[f] Set of Books Parameter
#5: Which component of workflow lets you design a complete workflow process?
[a] Workflow Builder
[b] Workflow Definitions Loader
[c] Workflow Engine
[d] Workflow Monitor
#6: Function Security is:
[a] Lowest or base level of Access Control
[b] Part of Role Base Access Control (RBAC) model
[c] Usually administered by end users
[d] Restricts user access to individual menus and menu options
#7: Profile Options can only be set at which levels?
[a] Site, Application and Responsibility
[b] Site, Application, Responsibility and User
[c] Site, Application and User
[d] Site and Application
#8: Which of the following statements are true regarding Workflow Processes?
[a] Workflow process definition is composed of activities and transitions between them
[b] Workflow engine locates the 'Run' activity which is the first activity in the process defintion to start it
[c] Workflow process completes when the workflow engine encounters an 'End' activity
[d] Workflow process definition must never be stored in the same database as the Workflow Engine
#9: Profile Options can be used to default information into which of the following?
[a] Concurrent Program Parameters Only
[b] Descriptive Flexfield Segments Only
[c] Key Flexfield Segments Only
[d] Both Concurrent Program Parametrs and Descriptive Flexfield Segments
#10: You have been asked to setup a default Check printer for the Accounts Payable Clerk. At what level would you setup the profile option for the default printer?
[a] Application Level
[b] Responsibility Level
[c] Site Level
[d] User Level
#11:Controlling access to individual functions through menu definitions is an example of which of the following?
[a] Blank Menus
[b] Function Security
[c] Securing Attributes
[d] Sub-Functions
#12: Which among the following are regions on the DBI dashboard?
[a] Parameter
[b] Table
[c] Graph
[d] Responsibility
[e] KPI
[f] Folder
#13: Workflow logic supports sophisticated rules to model your business logic. Which of the process constructs are supported?
[a] Looping
[b] Non-parallel flows
[c] Rendezvous
[d] Voting
[e] Results-based branching
#14: A responsibility is a collection of authorizations that allow access to which of the following?
[a] One or more application modules
[b] One or more Sets of Books
[c] Restricted list of reports
[d] Restricted list of menus and functions
#15: Which of the following statements are true regarding Alerts?
[a] Alerts must identify exceptions in order to perform actions
[b] Showing all employess that have terminated in the last 4 months is an example of Period Alert
[c] Period Alerts notify users of activity in the database as soon as it occurs
[d] A sales manager who wishes to inform his customer when an order has been shipped would use an Event Alert
[e] Sending an e-mail message is one possible action as a result of an alert
#16: As a system administrator, you have changed a profile option value at the site level and saved the record. At what point is the profile option change affected in the system for a business user?
[a] When the System Administrator saves the record
[b] When the Business User logs off and logs in back again
[c] When the Business User changes responsibility
[d] When the System Administrator logs off and logs in back again
#17: Daily Business Intelligence dashboards are available for which of the following?
[a] System Administration
[b] Service Contracts
[c] Projects
[d] All of the above
[e] None of the above
#18: What is the purpose of the Workflow Monitor?
[a] View status of worklfow process instances
[b] Monitor workflows
[c] Administrator can control workflows in Workflow Monitor
[d] Shows summary of all individual workflows
#19: Which of the following statements are incorrect about Responsibilities?
[a] One user can be assigned to multiple responsibilities for the same Oracle application module
[b] A maximum of 999 users can be assigned to one responsibility
[c] Securing attributes are used by Self-Service Web application responsbilities
[d] A request group lists the concurrent programs that a responsibility can run
#20:Workflow Notification Mailer uses which of the following protocols?
[a] Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) for inbound messages
[b] Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) for outbound messages
[c] Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) for inbound messages
[d] Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) for outbound messages
#21: Which of the following are true statements regarding DBI parameters?
[a] Every time you change the value of a parameter on a dashboard, the data on the dashboard is automatically refreshed
[b] When you log out of Oracle Applications, your last parameter settings (except data parameter) are cached so that it remains the same when you log in
[c] There can be multiple primary dimensions for each dashboard
[d] The primary dimension is the parameter that determines the values that are compared in the KPI region
#22: Business Event System is part of which tier of the Workflow Architecture?
[a] Application Server
[b] Oracle Server
[c] End-user Client
[d] Workflow Development Client
#23: Which of the following statements are true regarding DBI dashboards?
[a] DBI administrator needs to run incremental request set for each dashboard to refresh the data
[b] One can email a .GIF file of a dashboard or report to another user by clicking the Email link
[c] One can export a report to a Microsoft Excel spreadsheet including graphs and links by clicking the Export link
[d] Number of rows of data that are exported to Microsoft Excel is determined by the FND: View Object Max Fetch Size profile option
#24: Which of the following would you use to transfer a workflow process definition between the database and flat file ?
[a] Workflow Monitor
[b] Workflow Builder
[c] Workflow Definitions Loader
[d] Workflow XML Loader
#25: For which of the following business scenarios would you define Descriptive Flexfields?
[a] Storing vehicle information associated with the asset category "Vehicle"
[b] Location information associated with the "Vehicle" assets
[c] Customer service rep name associated with the sale order
[d] Weblink to property map in Oracle Property Manager
#26: If a menu is renamed under a different name, then what happens in the system?
[a] The original menu is disabled
[b] The new menu overwrites the original menu
[c] A new menu is created and the original menu is also enabled
[d] None of the above
September 14, 2007
Practice Tests Generate Lots of Visitors
The practice tests (mini mock and micro mock tests) have generated a huge response and lots of visitor eyeballs on this blog.
The blog editor wants to share with the readers, the visitor statistics generated since August 20, 2007 (Courtesy: Google Analytics).
Over the last 3 weeks, there has been 1602 unique visitors from 87 countries!
Thanks to all our readers around the globe for making this the most visited blog on Oracle Certification in the world!
The blog still continues to be the #1 Search Result on Google for the keyword "11i OCP" (as reported on our May3, 2007 posting)
September 13, 2007
More the Merrier
This installment of Micro Mock Test for 1Z0-200 E-Business Fundamentals exam features twenty questions on Multi-org and Flexfields. Please spend about 15-20 minutes answering these questions to simulate actual testing time pressure. Please remember that the exams are based on Release 11i and hence the concept of Multi-Org Access Control (MOAC) introduced in R12 may not be included.
Many blog readers have inquired when the test answers would be published. Ideally, one would like to have a testing engine / application where the test scores and answers are available on test completion. While the application is under construction, please be patient at this time while I promise to post the answers on this blog over the weekend. For the blog editor, it is quite heartening to see that so many of you are joining the Micro Mock test block (blog) party and answering the questions online. More the merrier! Continue to have fun!
MICRO MOCK TEST #3
#1: Examples of organizations in Oracle EBS include which of the following?
[a] Legal Entity
[b] Network
[c] Operating Unit
[d] Responsibility
[e] Set of Books
#2: Which of the following represents a company for which fiscal or tax reports are prepared?
[a] Business Group
[b] Legal Entity
[c] Operating Unit
[d] Set of Books
#3: Which of the following statements are true regarding Descriptive Flexfields?
[a] One can easily add up to 5 new Descriptive Flexfields to any form in Oracle EBS that presently does not have any defined
[b] Different Descriptive Flexfields can share the same value set
[c] Descriptive Flexfields appear as a normal field on a form
[d] Descriptive flexfields can use global segments or context-sensitive segments but not both
#4:When can two organizations share a set of books?
[a] Chart of Accounts and calendar must be the same, but currency can be different
[b] Calendar and currency must be the same, but chart of accounts can be different
[c] Calendar, currency and chart of accounts must be the same
[d] Chart of accounts and currency must be the same, but calendar can be different
#5: Which of the following are valid Value Set types that can be defined?
[a] None
[b] Interdependent
[c] Independent
[d] Table
[e] Exclusive
#6: Which of the following setups have to be configured after you have created a new operating unit?
[a] Supplier sites
[b] Customer addresses
[c] Employee addresses
[d] Payment terms
#7: Which of the following statements are true regarding multi-org structure?
[a] Multiple inventory organizations may be associated with a single operating unit
[b] Primary purpose of multi-org is to give multiple organizations access to the same transaction data [c] Multiple sets of books may be associated with a single legal entity
[d] Multiple operating units may be associated with a single legal entity
#8: Which of the following are Key Flexfields?
[a] Asset Category Flexfield
[b] Territory Flexfield
[c] Service Item Flexfield
[d] Sales Order Flexfield
#9: Which of the following represents a financial reporting entity that shares a common currency, calendar and chart of accounts?
[a] Legal Entity
[b] Operating Unit
[c] Business Group
[d] Set of Books
[e] Inventory Org
#10: For which of the Oracle EBS modules is data secured by Operating Unit?
[a] Cash Management
[b] General Ledger
[c] Property Manager
[d] Fixed Assets
#11: Which of the statements are incorrect about Key Flexfields?
[a] If dynamic insertion is turned off, a comination form must be used to create new code combinations for the key flexfield
[b] Key flexfields are not mandatory
[c] Item category flexfield is a key flexfield
[d] Flexfields: Open Key Window profile option can be set to open flexfield automatically if the cursor navigates to the field
#12: Which statements are true regarding flexfield value sets?
[a] Different segments of the same flexfield can use the same value set
[b] Must create a separate value set for each segment of each flexfield
[c] Value sets must include the actual values to be used with them
[d] Value sets define the values approved for a particular flexfield segment
#13:Identify the true statements about key flexfields
[a] Setup is optional
[b] Usually consists of multiple segments
[c] Captures additional information only
[d] Appears as a normal field on a form
#14: You have been asked to outline the complete list of tasks to be performed to add a new operating unit (OU) to your organization's existing enterprise structure that is in use for the last 2 years. Which option is the correct sequence of steps?
[a] Define an OU, run ADADMIN to convert to multi-org, run Replicate Seed Data program, create responsibility, assign MO: Operating Unit profile to the responsibility, assign responsibility to user
[b] Run ADADMIN to convert to multi-org, Define an OU, create responsibility, assign MO: Operating Unit profile to the responsibility, assign responsibility to user
[c] Define an OU, run Replicate Seed Data program, create responsibility, assign MO: Operating Unit profile to the responsibility, assign responsibility to user
[d] Not possible to add a new OU to an existing enterprise structure
#15: Which of the following are business needs addressed by the multi-org architecture?
[a] Secure access of data by line of business
[b] Implement different organizational models
[c] Sell and ship from different legal entities
[d] Support multiple business units sharing same Set of Books
#16: You are entering values for a Key Flexfield and get a warning note pop-up window directing you to enter a valid combination. Why did this happen?
[a] The Key Flexfield is not setup
[b] The Key Flexfield is not forzen
[c] The Key Flexfield has Dynamic Insert option unchecked
[d] The Key Flexfield has cross-validation option checked
#17: What are the segment qualifiers available for Accounting Flexfield?
[a] Account Type
[b] Allow Posting
[c] Parent - Yes or No
[d] Allow Budgeting
[e] Allow Reporting
#18: You have defined a Cost Center value set value of 200 and saved the record. Some months later, it is decided to discontinue Cost Center 200 and enter a new cost center 300. What options are available to you?
[a] Delete the value 200 and enter a new value 300
[b] Disable the value 200 and enter a new value 300
[c] Overwrite the value 200 with new value 300
[d] Limit the effective date of 200 to a date in the past and enter a new value 300
#19: Company ABC has 3 Sets of Books - SOB A, SOB B and SOB C. Each Set of Books has 2 Legal Entities - A1 & A2, B1& B2, C1 & C2 Legal Entity A1 has 2 Operating Units - A1OU1 and A1OU2, Legal Entity A2, B1, B2, C1 and C2 has one operating units each A2OU1, B1OU1, C1OU1 and C2OU1. To create this organization structure, how many Oracle instances are required?
[a] 3 : equal to the number of Set of Books
[b] 6 : equal to the number of Legal Entity
[c] 1 : equal to the number of database
[d] 7 : equal to the number of Operating Units
#20: Ability to create new code combiantions on the fly is an example of which of the following?
[a] Aliases
[b] Security Rules
[c] Cross-validation Rules
[d] Dynamic Insertion
E-Business Fundamentals Micro Mock Test Summary:
Click Here For Test 3
Click Here For Test 2
Click Here For Test 1
Many blog readers have inquired when the test answers would be published. Ideally, one would like to have a testing engine / application where the test scores and answers are available on test completion. While the application is under construction, please be patient at this time while I promise to post the answers on this blog over the weekend. For the blog editor, it is quite heartening to see that so many of you are joining the Micro Mock test block (blog) party and answering the questions online. More the merrier! Continue to have fun!
MICRO MOCK TEST #3
#1: Examples of organizations in Oracle EBS include which of the following?
[a] Legal Entity
[b] Network
[c] Operating Unit
[d] Responsibility
[e] Set of Books
#2: Which of the following represents a company for which fiscal or tax reports are prepared?
[a] Business Group
[b] Legal Entity
[c] Operating Unit
[d] Set of Books
#3: Which of the following statements are true regarding Descriptive Flexfields?
[a] One can easily add up to 5 new Descriptive Flexfields to any form in Oracle EBS that presently does not have any defined
[b] Different Descriptive Flexfields can share the same value set
[c] Descriptive Flexfields appear as a normal field on a form
[d] Descriptive flexfields can use global segments or context-sensitive segments but not both
#4:When can two organizations share a set of books?
[a] Chart of Accounts and calendar must be the same, but currency can be different
[b] Calendar and currency must be the same, but chart of accounts can be different
[c] Calendar, currency and chart of accounts must be the same
[d] Chart of accounts and currency must be the same, but calendar can be different
#5: Which of the following are valid Value Set types that can be defined?
[a] None
[b] Interdependent
[c] Independent
[d] Table
[e] Exclusive
#6: Which of the following setups have to be configured after you have created a new operating unit?
[a] Supplier sites
[b] Customer addresses
[c] Employee addresses
[d] Payment terms
#7: Which of the following statements are true regarding multi-org structure?
[a] Multiple inventory organizations may be associated with a single operating unit
[b] Primary purpose of multi-org is to give multiple organizations access to the same transaction data [c] Multiple sets of books may be associated with a single legal entity
[d] Multiple operating units may be associated with a single legal entity
#8: Which of the following are Key Flexfields?
[a] Asset Category Flexfield
[b] Territory Flexfield
[c] Service Item Flexfield
[d] Sales Order Flexfield
#9: Which of the following represents a financial reporting entity that shares a common currency, calendar and chart of accounts?
[a] Legal Entity
[b] Operating Unit
[c] Business Group
[d] Set of Books
[e] Inventory Org
#10: For which of the Oracle EBS modules is data secured by Operating Unit?
[a] Cash Management
[b] General Ledger
[c] Property Manager
[d] Fixed Assets
#11: Which of the statements are incorrect about Key Flexfields?
[a] If dynamic insertion is turned off, a comination form must be used to create new code combinations for the key flexfield
[b] Key flexfields are not mandatory
[c] Item category flexfield is a key flexfield
[d] Flexfields: Open Key Window profile option can be set to open flexfield automatically if the cursor navigates to the field
#12: Which statements are true regarding flexfield value sets?
[a] Different segments of the same flexfield can use the same value set
[b] Must create a separate value set for each segment of each flexfield
[c] Value sets must include the actual values to be used with them
[d] Value sets define the values approved for a particular flexfield segment
#13:Identify the true statements about key flexfields
[a] Setup is optional
[b] Usually consists of multiple segments
[c] Captures additional information only
[d] Appears as a normal field on a form
#14: You have been asked to outline the complete list of tasks to be performed to add a new operating unit (OU) to your organization's existing enterprise structure that is in use for the last 2 years. Which option is the correct sequence of steps?
[a] Define an OU, run ADADMIN to convert to multi-org, run Replicate Seed Data program, create responsibility, assign MO: Operating Unit profile to the responsibility, assign responsibility to user
[b] Run ADADMIN to convert to multi-org, Define an OU, create responsibility, assign MO: Operating Unit profile to the responsibility, assign responsibility to user
[c] Define an OU, run Replicate Seed Data program, create responsibility, assign MO: Operating Unit profile to the responsibility, assign responsibility to user
[d] Not possible to add a new OU to an existing enterprise structure
#15: Which of the following are business needs addressed by the multi-org architecture?
[a] Secure access of data by line of business
[b] Implement different organizational models
[c] Sell and ship from different legal entities
[d] Support multiple business units sharing same Set of Books
#16: You are entering values for a Key Flexfield and get a warning note pop-up window directing you to enter a valid combination. Why did this happen?
[a] The Key Flexfield is not setup
[b] The Key Flexfield is not forzen
[c] The Key Flexfield has Dynamic Insert option unchecked
[d] The Key Flexfield has cross-validation option checked
#17: What are the segment qualifiers available for Accounting Flexfield?
[a] Account Type
[b] Allow Posting
[c] Parent - Yes or No
[d] Allow Budgeting
[e] Allow Reporting
#18: You have defined a Cost Center value set value of 200 and saved the record. Some months later, it is decided to discontinue Cost Center 200 and enter a new cost center 300. What options are available to you?
[a] Delete the value 200 and enter a new value 300
[b] Disable the value 200 and enter a new value 300
[c] Overwrite the value 200 with new value 300
[d] Limit the effective date of 200 to a date in the past and enter a new value 300
#19: Company ABC has 3 Sets of Books - SOB A, SOB B and SOB C. Each Set of Books has 2 Legal Entities - A1 & A2, B1& B2, C1 & C2 Legal Entity A1 has 2 Operating Units - A1OU1 and A1OU2, Legal Entity A2, B1, B2, C1 and C2 has one operating units each A2OU1, B1OU1, C1OU1 and C2OU1. To create this organization structure, how many Oracle instances are required?
[a] 3 : equal to the number of Set of Books
[b] 6 : equal to the number of Legal Entity
[c] 1 : equal to the number of database
[d] 7 : equal to the number of Operating Units
#20: Ability to create new code combiantions on the fly is an example of which of the following?
[a] Aliases
[b] Security Rules
[c] Cross-validation Rules
[d] Dynamic Insertion
E-Business Fundamentals Micro Mock Test Summary:
Click Here For Test 3
Click Here For Test 2
Click Here For Test 1
September 12, 2007
Another Micro Mock Test for 1Z0-200 Exam
This micro mock test features the focus area on integration and shared entities.
#1: Which of the following are examples of Shared Entities?
[a] Set of Books (SOB)
[b] Units of Measure (UOM)
[c] Employees
[d] Sales Order
#2: Which of the following are owned by Application Object Library (AOL)?
[a] Customers
[b] Currencies
[c] Suppliers
[d] Set of Books (SOB)
[e] Languages
#3: What statements are true about Units of Measure (UOM)?
[a] UOM when grouped together form UOM Classes
[b] Every UOM Class require one Primary UOM
[c] UOM are inventory organization specific
[d] An example of UOM Conversion is 1 feet = 1 * 12 inches
#4: Which of the following are owned by CRM Foundation (JTA)?
[a] Resource Manager
[b] Concurrent Manager
[c] Interaction History
[d] Transaction Manager
#5: Which of the following have modules incorrectly matched with the corresponding Key Business Flow?
[a] Demand to Build: BOM, OM, WIP
[b] Forecast to Plan: AP, AR, GL
[c] Procure to Pay: AP, INV, PO
[d] Contract to Renewal: AR, OKS, OM
#6: Which of the following are Key Business Flows?
[a] Click to Order
[b] Project to Payroll
[c] Campaign to Order
[d] Order to Cash
[e] Request to Restitution
#7: Vendor ABC Corp supplies to XYZ Corp based on Purchase Orders sent by XYZ Corp. Which of the modules are impacted by this business flow?
[a] Purchasing Only
[b] Purchasing, Payables
[c] General Ledger, Order Management, Cash Management
[d] Purchasing, Payables, General Ledger, Cash Management
#8: The Trading Community Architecture involves primarily which one of the following?
[a] Users
[b] Items
[c] Customers
[d] Responsibilities
#9: Using which business flow can online customers be, store catalogs and store fronts created and application users generated?
[a] Demand to Build
[b] Campaign to Build
[c] Click to Order
[d] Contract to Renewal
The introduction of the micro mock tests have generated a tremendous response from our readers. This serves as a great source of encouragement to the blog editor.
Thanks for your clicks!
#1: Which of the following are examples of Shared Entities?
[a] Set of Books (SOB)
[b] Units of Measure (UOM)
[c] Employees
[d] Sales Order
#2: Which of the following are owned by Application Object Library (AOL)?
[a] Customers
[b] Currencies
[c] Suppliers
[d] Set of Books (SOB)
[e] Languages
#3: What statements are true about Units of Measure (UOM)?
[a] UOM when grouped together form UOM Classes
[b] Every UOM Class require one Primary UOM
[c] UOM are inventory organization specific
[d] An example of UOM Conversion is 1 feet = 1 * 12 inches
#4: Which of the following are owned by CRM Foundation (JTA)?
[a] Resource Manager
[b] Concurrent Manager
[c] Interaction History
[d] Transaction Manager
#5: Which of the following have modules incorrectly matched with the corresponding Key Business Flow?
[a] Demand to Build: BOM, OM, WIP
[b] Forecast to Plan: AP, AR, GL
[c] Procure to Pay: AP, INV, PO
[d] Contract to Renewal: AR, OKS, OM
#6: Which of the following are Key Business Flows?
[a] Click to Order
[b] Project to Payroll
[c] Campaign to Order
[d] Order to Cash
[e] Request to Restitution
#7: Vendor ABC Corp supplies to XYZ Corp based on Purchase Orders sent by XYZ Corp. Which of the modules are impacted by this business flow?
[a] Purchasing Only
[b] Purchasing, Payables
[c] General Ledger, Order Management, Cash Management
[d] Purchasing, Payables, General Ledger, Cash Management
#8: The Trading Community Architecture involves primarily which one of the following?
[a] Users
[b] Items
[c] Customers
[d] Responsibilities
#9: Using which business flow can online customers be, store catalogs and store fronts created and application users generated?
[a] Demand to Build
[b] Campaign to Build
[c] Click to Order
[d] Contract to Renewal
The introduction of the micro mock tests have generated a tremendous response from our readers. This serves as a great source of encouragement to the blog editor.
Thanks for your clicks!
September 11, 2007
Micro Mock Test for 1Z0-200 EBS Fundamentals Exam
The first battle that the brave EBS OCP warriors face is 11i E-Business Suite Essentials for Implementers. The exam is based on a 2 day Instructor-Led Training course offered by Oracle University. The student guide for the course can be the basis for one's preparation. Self-study CDs prepared by NetG Learning, Oracle Tutor Patch Number 3385301 and Oracle Applications Documentation Library (Oracle Applications Concepts, Multiple Organizations in Oracle Applications, Oracle Applications Flexfields Guide, Oracle Applications System Administrator's Guide, Oracle Applications User's Guide, Oracle Alert User's Guide, Oracle Self-Service Web Applications Implementation Manual andOracle Workflow Guide) are other handy exam preparation aids.
The exam is of 1.5 hours duration with around 64 questions to answer. The self-proctored exam can be taken online. Questions are based on 7 focus areas: E-Business Suite Overview, Integration and shared entities, Multi-org, Flexfields, Sys Admin, Workflow and Daily Business Intelligence (DBI). If one is preparing or already taken the Oracle Certified Expert (OCE) tests for System Administration and Workflow, then two of the focus areas are taken care of. Over the next 7 postings on EBS Fundamentals, I would present 9-10 practice questions on each area on each micro mock test. Each question set should require only 8-9 minutes of your daily browsing time!
#1: The two main architectures on which E-Business Suite 11i is based are:
[a] Functional Architecture
[b] Technical Architecture
[c] Business Architecture
[d] Server Architecture
#2: Which of the following are among the 5 principles of 11i Business Architecture?
[a] Classical Foundation
[b] End-to-End Integration
[c] Global
[d] Rapid Implementation
#3: What are the 4 class of users on which the 11i technical architecture is based ?
[a] Forms-based user
[b] Power user
[c] Self-service user
[d] One-time user
[e] BI user
[f] Mobile user
#4: Select the correctly matched acronyms:
[a] PHP - Private Home Page
[b] JVM - Java Virtual Machine
[c] JSP - Java Server Pages
[d] UTF8 - Unicode Transformation Font 8-bit
#5: Which of the following are members of the 3-Tier Technical Architecture of 11i?
[a] Desktop Tier
[b] Laptop Tier
[c] Applications Tier
[d] Middleware Tier
[e] Database Tier
#6: What is the name of the JVM provided in E-Business Suite 11i versions?
[a] Oracle Active X
[b] Oracle JDeveloper
[c] Oracle JInitiator
[d] Sun Microsystems JDK 5.0 or higher
#7: What role does Oracle Application Server play in E-Business Suite 11i Technical Architecture?
[a] Executes business logic
[b] Controls communication between desktop client and database
[c] Stores business logic
[d] Stores business data
#8: Which among the following are implementation methodologies for E-Business Suite 11i?
[a] Application Implementation Methodology (AIM)
[b] Dynamic Enterprise Modeling (DEM)
[c] Oracle Unified Method (OUM)
[d] Project Managment Method (PJM)
#9: As part of National Language Support (NLS), how many languages does Release 11i support for customer-facing components of the applications?
[a] 8
[b] 17
[c] 32
[d] 53
A special thanks to Sanjib M. of Montreal, Canada for providing access to his braindump and sharing many of the questions that appear on the EBS Fundamentals micro mock tests!
Please follow Sanjib's example and contribute to the question bank on this blog from any source that you have accessed. Questions need not be only actual exam questions and can be typical test questions following the multiple choice, multiple correct answer OCP exam format.
The exam is of 1.5 hours duration with around 64 questions to answer. The self-proctored exam can be taken online. Questions are based on 7 focus areas: E-Business Suite Overview, Integration and shared entities, Multi-org, Flexfields, Sys Admin, Workflow and Daily Business Intelligence (DBI). If one is preparing or already taken the Oracle Certified Expert (OCE) tests for System Administration and Workflow, then two of the focus areas are taken care of. Over the next 7 postings on EBS Fundamentals, I would present 9-10 practice questions on each area on each micro mock test. Each question set should require only 8-9 minutes of your daily browsing time!
#1: The two main architectures on which E-Business Suite 11i is based are:
[a] Functional Architecture
[b] Technical Architecture
[c] Business Architecture
[d] Server Architecture
#2: Which of the following are among the 5 principles of 11i Business Architecture?
[a] Classical Foundation
[b] End-to-End Integration
[c] Global
[d] Rapid Implementation
#3: What are the 4 class of users on which the 11i technical architecture is based ?
[a] Forms-based user
[b] Power user
[c] Self-service user
[d] One-time user
[e] BI user
[f] Mobile user
#4: Select the correctly matched acronyms:
[a] PHP - Private Home Page
[b] JVM - Java Virtual Machine
[c] JSP - Java Server Pages
[d] UTF8 - Unicode Transformation Font 8-bit
#5: Which of the following are members of the 3-Tier Technical Architecture of 11i?
[a] Desktop Tier
[b] Laptop Tier
[c] Applications Tier
[d] Middleware Tier
[e] Database Tier
#6: What is the name of the JVM provided in E-Business Suite 11i versions?
[a] Oracle Active X
[b] Oracle JDeveloper
[c] Oracle JInitiator
[d] Sun Microsystems JDK 5.0 or higher
#7: What role does Oracle Application Server play in E-Business Suite 11i Technical Architecture?
[a] Executes business logic
[b] Controls communication between desktop client and database
[c] Stores business logic
[d] Stores business data
#8: Which among the following are implementation methodologies for E-Business Suite 11i?
[a] Application Implementation Methodology (AIM)
[b] Dynamic Enterprise Modeling (DEM)
[c] Oracle Unified Method (OUM)
[d] Project Managment Method (PJM)
#9: As part of National Language Support (NLS), how many languages does Release 11i support for customer-facing components of the applications?
[a] 8
[b] 17
[c] 32
[d] 53
A special thanks to Sanjib M. of Montreal, Canada for providing access to his braindump and sharing many of the questions that appear on the EBS Fundamentals micro mock tests!
Please follow Sanjib's example and contribute to the question bank on this blog from any source that you have accessed. Questions need not be only actual exam questions and can be typical test questions following the multiple choice, multiple correct answer OCP exam format.
September 8, 2007
Mini Mock Test for 1Z0-212 Payables Fundamentals Exam
Nearly every organization that has implemented Oracle E-Business Suite Financials use the Payables module. Hence, it's no wonder that 1Z0-212 Payables Fundamentals exam is also one of the most popular. The exam is based on a 4 day Oracle University course - 11i Oracle Payables Fundamentals Ed 3. The student guide for the course or Oracle Tutor Patch# 4450049 can serve as the foundation for your exam prep. Additional prep material may include reading the Oracle Financials Handbook, the "Black Book" and OUKC online courses and assessment tests.
Please find below a mini-mock test consisting of 20 questions that should be answered in half an hour or less. The actual exam would consist of around 60 plus questions to be answered in one and a half hour. I'll publish the solution key next week and hopefully by that time you would have a chance to allocate half an hour to test your prep. Hopefully, this mini mock test would assist you on your way to get the coveted certification for Oracle 11i Financials Certified Professional Consultant - Payables.
#1: Which of the following modules are not integrated with Oracle Payables?
[a] Oracle Sales Contracts
[b] Oracle Assets
[c] Oracle Property Manager
[d] Oracle Bill of Materials
[e] Oracle Projects
#2: You have been asked to create invoice distributions automatically. Which of the invoice distribution creation methods can be suggested?
[a] Manual Distribution Entry
[b] Using Distribution Set
[c] Using PO Matching
[d] Using Allocation (e.g for tax or freight)
#3: Which of the Payables Setup match correctly with the form where you need to set them up?
[a] Invoice Match Option - Payables Option
[b] VAT Registration Number - Financials Option
[c] Use Multiple Currencies - Payables Option
[d] Use Invoice Approval Workflow - Financials Option
[e] Tax Code Defaults - Tax Codes
#4: Which of the following can be done with Oracle Internet Expenses ?
[a] Account correctly for the expenses
[b] Limit spend on administration
[c] Pay the Credit Card Issuer
[d] Validate legitimate business expenses
#5: Which modules will allow you to upload approved property lease and equipment charges for automatic payment?
[a] Oracle Service Contracts
[b] Oracle Purchasing
[c] Oracle Lease Management
[d] Oracle Cash Management
[e] Oracle Property Manager
#6: Your company has decided to end business relationship with a supplier. There was an outstanding credit memo of $1000. The supplier sent in their last invoice of $750. How would you record the above transactions in the system?
[a] Enter a debit memo for $250 and apply to credit memo
[b] Enter a refund of $250 and apply to credit memo and invoice
[c] Enter a payment of $250
[d] Enter a prepayment of $250 and apply to invoice
#7: Which one of the following is part of the Automatic Credit Card Registration
[a] Assign New Cards to Employee
[b] Automatic Card Activation (if desired)
[c] Identify Registered Cards in Data Feed
[d] Create New Card Automatically
#8: When setting up new suppliers, from which of the setup forms do most of the information default on the various supplier setup tabs?
[a] Financial Options
[b] Supper Item Setup
[c] Payables Options
[d] Operating Unit Setup
[e] Receiving Options
#9: Which of the following is part of the Audit Process Enhancement for Oracle Internet Expenses?
[a] Ability to Reject Entire Expense Report
[b] Non-Accessibility to Invoice and Payment Information
[c] Ability to Set Up Descriptive Audit Codes
[d] Ability to Capture Receipt Package Information
#10: Which profile option prevents suppliers from matching an invoice to more than one purchase order when entering invoices online in Oracle iSupplier Portal?
[a] iSupplier Portal matching control
[b] Supplier Site Contacts Enhancements
[c] Enhanced Matching Controls
[d] Invoice Approval Workflow (IAW) Resubmission
#11: Which statement is incorrect about modifying a payment batch?
[a] One can create a zero-amount payment for a supplier site
[b] One can remove all invoices for a particular supplier site
[c] Payables automatically builds payments after you modify a payment batch
[d] One can create a negative-amount payment to clear a credit memo
[e] One can modify the payment or discount amounts for a selected invoice
#12: Name an apppropriate business reason for using the clearing payment method?
[a] Account for intercompany expenses when disbursing funds through banks
[b] Generate a payment document to clear a debit memo
[c] Account for intercompany expenses when not disbursing funds through banks
[d] Generate a payment document to clear a credit memo
#13: The Supplier Bank Account access feature controls the display of which of the following?
[a] Bank Accounts tab in Suppliers window
[b] Contacts tab in Supplier Site window
[c] Supplier Assignments tab in Bank Account Window
[d] Bank Accounts tab in Supplier Site window
#14: Which among the following are the valid Invoice Types?
[a] QuickMatch
[b] Purchase Order Match
[c] Prepayment Invoice
[d] Tax
[e] Mixed
#15: You have been asked to implement an invoicing procedure to have rent invoices generated automatically every month. Which feature of Oracle Payables would you use?
[a] RTS Invoices
[b] Recurring Invoices
[c] Retroactive Price Adjustment Invoices
[d] Lease Payments from Oracle Assets
#16: 120 LCD Monitors were ordered for $299.00 each as per the approved PO. 112 LCD Monitors were received by the requested delivery date and 7 of them were found to have been damaged in transit and hence not accepted. Each LCD Monitor had the price increased to $305 when the supplier sent the invoice. The AP system was setup for 4-way matching with the following tolerances: Quantity Ordered = 15%, Quantity Received = 10%, Price = 5%. What would be the outcome after invoice match?
[a] Invoice on Qty Ord Hold
[b] Invoice on Qty Rec Hold
[c] Invoice on Price Hold
[d] Invoice matched successfully
#17: Which of the following statements are true regarding receipt accruals?
[a] When you accrue on receipt, processing a receiving transaction automatically sends a receipt accrual to the general ledger when the Journal Import process is run with a source of Purchasing
[b] When items are accrued on receipt, period-end accrual is generated by the Receipt Accruals - Period-End process
[c] When you process a receipt, no accounting is created for period end accruals. Receipts that are accrued at period end will always be for a destination type of expense
[d] If an invoice is not entered by period end, the Receipt Accruals - Period End process will generate accruals and transfer the accounting for them to the GL. This journal is created with a reversal date in a subsequent period
#18: The tax calculated on the invoice by the system is $3.987. Which among the following are the correct tax calculation on the invoice?
[a] Tax amount = $ 4.00 with Rounding Rule = Up
[b] Tax amount = $ 3.99 with Rounding Rule = Down
[c] Tax amount = $ 3.99 with Rounding Rule = Nearest
[d] Tax amount = $ 3.98 with Rounding Rule = Down
#19: A team member has given a list of specific forms that she needs to setup key accounts. Which among the following are incorrect matches?
[a] Prepayment Account: Payables Option > Payment Accounting
[b] Realized Gain Account: Payables Option > Currency
[c] Rounding Account: Financials Option > Accounting
[d] Clearing Account: Receiving Option
#20: New Features for Oracle Payables include which of the following?
[a] Tax codes defaults hierarchy
[b] Enhanced Matching Controls for Oracle iSupplier Portal
[c] Supplier Site Contacts Enhancements
[d] Invoice Approval Workflow (IAW) Resubmission Enhancement
[e] Supplier Bank Account Update Enhancements
Click Here For the Solution Key
Please find below a mini-mock test consisting of 20 questions that should be answered in half an hour or less. The actual exam would consist of around 60 plus questions to be answered in one and a half hour. I'll publish the solution key next week and hopefully by that time you would have a chance to allocate half an hour to test your prep. Hopefully, this mini mock test would assist you on your way to get the coveted certification for Oracle 11i Financials Certified Professional Consultant - Payables.
#1: Which of the following modules are not integrated with Oracle Payables?
[a] Oracle Sales Contracts
[b] Oracle Assets
[c] Oracle Property Manager
[d] Oracle Bill of Materials
[e] Oracle Projects
#2: You have been asked to create invoice distributions automatically. Which of the invoice distribution creation methods can be suggested?
[a] Manual Distribution Entry
[b] Using Distribution Set
[c] Using PO Matching
[d] Using Allocation (e.g for tax or freight)
#3: Which of the Payables Setup match correctly with the form where you need to set them up?
[a] Invoice Match Option - Payables Option
[b] VAT Registration Number - Financials Option
[c] Use Multiple Currencies - Payables Option
[d] Use Invoice Approval Workflow - Financials Option
[e] Tax Code Defaults - Tax Codes
#4: Which of the following can be done with Oracle Internet Expenses ?
[a] Account correctly for the expenses
[b] Limit spend on administration
[c] Pay the Credit Card Issuer
[d] Validate legitimate business expenses
#5: Which modules will allow you to upload approved property lease and equipment charges for automatic payment?
[a] Oracle Service Contracts
[b] Oracle Purchasing
[c] Oracle Lease Management
[d] Oracle Cash Management
[e] Oracle Property Manager
#6: Your company has decided to end business relationship with a supplier. There was an outstanding credit memo of $1000. The supplier sent in their last invoice of $750. How would you record the above transactions in the system?
[a] Enter a debit memo for $250 and apply to credit memo
[b] Enter a refund of $250 and apply to credit memo and invoice
[c] Enter a payment of $250
[d] Enter a prepayment of $250 and apply to invoice
#7: Which one of the following is part of the Automatic Credit Card Registration
[a] Assign New Cards to Employee
[b] Automatic Card Activation (if desired)
[c] Identify Registered Cards in Data Feed
[d] Create New Card Automatically
#8: When setting up new suppliers, from which of the setup forms do most of the information default on the various supplier setup tabs?
[a] Financial Options
[b] Supper Item Setup
[c] Payables Options
[d] Operating Unit Setup
[e] Receiving Options
#9: Which of the following is part of the Audit Process Enhancement for Oracle Internet Expenses?
[a] Ability to Reject Entire Expense Report
[b] Non-Accessibility to Invoice and Payment Information
[c] Ability to Set Up Descriptive Audit Codes
[d] Ability to Capture Receipt Package Information
#10: Which profile option prevents suppliers from matching an invoice to more than one purchase order when entering invoices online in Oracle iSupplier Portal?
[a] iSupplier Portal matching control
[b] Supplier Site Contacts Enhancements
[c] Enhanced Matching Controls
[d] Invoice Approval Workflow (IAW) Resubmission
#11: Which statement is incorrect about modifying a payment batch?
[a] One can create a zero-amount payment for a supplier site
[b] One can remove all invoices for a particular supplier site
[c] Payables automatically builds payments after you modify a payment batch
[d] One can create a negative-amount payment to clear a credit memo
[e] One can modify the payment or discount amounts for a selected invoice
#12: Name an apppropriate business reason for using the clearing payment method?
[a] Account for intercompany expenses when disbursing funds through banks
[b] Generate a payment document to clear a debit memo
[c] Account for intercompany expenses when not disbursing funds through banks
[d] Generate a payment document to clear a credit memo
#13: The Supplier Bank Account access feature controls the display of which of the following?
[a] Bank Accounts tab in Suppliers window
[b] Contacts tab in Supplier Site window
[c] Supplier Assignments tab in Bank Account Window
[d] Bank Accounts tab in Supplier Site window
#14: Which among the following are the valid Invoice Types?
[a] QuickMatch
[b] Purchase Order Match
[c] Prepayment Invoice
[d] Tax
[e] Mixed
#15: You have been asked to implement an invoicing procedure to have rent invoices generated automatically every month. Which feature of Oracle Payables would you use?
[a] RTS Invoices
[b] Recurring Invoices
[c] Retroactive Price Adjustment Invoices
[d] Lease Payments from Oracle Assets
#16: 120 LCD Monitors were ordered for $299.00 each as per the approved PO. 112 LCD Monitors were received by the requested delivery date and 7 of them were found to have been damaged in transit and hence not accepted. Each LCD Monitor had the price increased to $305 when the supplier sent the invoice. The AP system was setup for 4-way matching with the following tolerances: Quantity Ordered = 15%, Quantity Received = 10%, Price = 5%. What would be the outcome after invoice match?
[a] Invoice on Qty Ord Hold
[b] Invoice on Qty Rec Hold
[c] Invoice on Price Hold
[d] Invoice matched successfully
#17: Which of the following statements are true regarding receipt accruals?
[a] When you accrue on receipt, processing a receiving transaction automatically sends a receipt accrual to the general ledger when the Journal Import process is run with a source of Purchasing
[b] When items are accrued on receipt, period-end accrual is generated by the Receipt Accruals - Period-End process
[c] When you process a receipt, no accounting is created for period end accruals. Receipts that are accrued at period end will always be for a destination type of expense
[d] If an invoice is not entered by period end, the Receipt Accruals - Period End process will generate accruals and transfer the accounting for them to the GL. This journal is created with a reversal date in a subsequent period
#18: The tax calculated on the invoice by the system is $3.987. Which among the following are the correct tax calculation on the invoice?
[a] Tax amount = $ 4.00 with Rounding Rule = Up
[b] Tax amount = $ 3.99 with Rounding Rule = Down
[c] Tax amount = $ 3.99 with Rounding Rule = Nearest
[d] Tax amount = $ 3.98 with Rounding Rule = Down
#19: A team member has given a list of specific forms that she needs to setup key accounts. Which among the following are incorrect matches?
[a] Prepayment Account: Payables Option > Payment Accounting
[b] Realized Gain Account: Payables Option > Currency
[c] Rounding Account: Financials Option > Accounting
[d] Clearing Account: Receiving Option
#20: New Features for Oracle Payables include which of the following?
[a] Tax codes defaults hierarchy
[b] Enhanced Matching Controls for Oracle iSupplier Portal
[c] Supplier Site Contacts Enhancements
[d] Invoice Approval Workflow (IAW) Resubmission Enhancement
[e] Supplier Bank Account Update Enhancements
Click Here For the Solution Key
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